AIMO Initial Selection Mock Paper 5 · IMOolympiad.com · Original practice

6 written-solution problems · Two three-problem sessions; confirm timing in your invitation

Invitational selection preparation. These paired sets use the question count in the released 2022 archive. The current organiser overview says 180 minutes per examination, while that archived paper says 240 minutes. We do not treat either as a confirmed duration for your next invitation.

Original independent practice in English. Not an official paper or predicted selection test. Keep hints and solutions closed during your attempt.

How to review your proof

Check that you have used every condition, justified the main idea, covered all cases and stated the conclusion. A different complete proof can also be correct. This is a self-review checklist; written proofs are not automatically marked.

Session 1 · 3 problems · invitation determines timing

Question 1

For j≥0j\ge0, put Fj=22j+1F_j=2^{2^j}+1. Prove that the numbers F0,F1,…F_0,F_1,\ldots are pairwise coprime. Prove also that every prime divisor qq of FjF_j satisfies q≡1(mod2j+1)q\equiv1\pmod{2^{j+1}}. Deduce that for every positive integer kk there exists a prime congruent to 1 modulo 2k2^k.

Hint 1

Use repeated difference of squares to evaluate the product of the first j terms.

Hint 2

If q divides Fⱼ, the smallest positive exponent d for which 2d≡1(modq)2^d\equiv1\pmod q is exactly 2j+12^{j+1}. Show that d divides q−1.

Worked solution 1

Repeated difference of squares gives F0F1⋯Fj−1=22j−1=Fj−2(j≥1).\begin{gathered}F_0F_1\cdots F_{j-1}=2^{2^j}-1=F_j-2\\(j\ge1).\end{gathered} One may also prove this by induction: multiplying 22j−12^{2^j}-1 by 22j+12^{2^j}+1 produces 22j+1−12^{2^{j+1}}-1. If i<ji<j, a common divisor of Fi,FjF_i,F_j therefore divides 2. Both numbers are odd, so their gcd is 1.

Let a prime q∣Fjq\mid F_j. It is odd, and 22j≡−1(modq)2^{2^j}\equiv-1\pmod q. Thus 22j+1≡12^{2^{j+1}}\equiv1, while 22j≢12^{2^j}\not\equiv1. Let dd be the smallest positive exponent giving residue 1. Dividing any such exponent by dd with remainder shows that the remainder must be 0, by minimality. Hence d∣2j+1d\mid2^{j+1}. All divisors of this number are powers of 2, and d∤2jd\nmid2^j; consequently d=2j+1d=2^{j+1}.

Why the order divides q−1q-1. Multiplication by 2 permutes the nonzero residues modulo qq. Multiplying all those residues and cancelling (q−1)!(q-1)!, which is coprime to qq, gives 2q−1≡1(modq)2^{q-1}\equiv1\pmod q. The same division-with-remainder argument yields d∣q−1d\mid q-1. Hence q≡1(mod2j+1)q\equiv1\pmod{2^{j+1}}.

For any k≥1k\ge1, the integer Fk−1>1F_{k-1}>1 has a prime divisor. That divisor is 1 modulo 2k2^k, proving the final assertion. The pairwise coprimality also shows that prime divisors chosen from different FjF_j are distinct.

Conclusion: The Fermat numbers are pairwise coprime, and their prime divisors have the stated congruence.

Question 2

Let a1<a2<⋯<ana_1<a_2<\cdots<a_n be real numbers, let w1,…,wnw_1,\ldots,w_n be positive, and let c≠0c\ne0 be real. Prove that ∑i=1nwix−ai=c\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{w_i}{x-a_i}=c has exactly nn distinct real solutions. Locate them relative to the aia_i, and find their sum.

Hint 1

On each interval without a pole, compare the function at two arguments directly; no derivative is needed.

Hint 2

After locating the solutions, multiply by ∏(x−ai)\prod(x-a_i) and compare the leading two polynomial coefficients.

Worked solution 2

Let H(x)=∑wi/(x−ai)H(x)=\sum w_i/(x-a_i), defined away from the aia_i. If x<yx<y lie in the same interval between consecutive poles, then (x−ai)(y−ai)>0,1x−ai−1y−ai=y−x(x−ai)(y−ai)>0.\begin{gathered}(x-a_i)(y-a_i)>0,\\\frac1{x-a_i}-\frac1{y-a_i}=\frac{y-x}{(x-a_i)(y-a_i)}>0.\end{gathered} Thus HH is strictly decreasing on each such interval, including the two unbounded outer intervals.

In (ai,ai+1)(a_i,a_{i+1}), its values approach +∞+\infty at the left and −∞-\infty at the right. Because the rational expression is continuous there, it crosses the level cc; strict decrease makes this crossing unique. This gives n−1n-1 solutions. The continuity fact used here is that a continuous function taking values on both sides of a level must take that level in between.

On (an,∞)(a_n,\infty), HH decreases from +∞+\infty to 0 through positive values, giving exactly one further solution if c>0c>0, and none if c<0c<0. On (−∞,a1)(-\infty,a_1), it decreases from 0 to −∞-\infty through negative values, giving exactly one further solution if c<0c<0. There are therefore exactly nn solutions in the claimed intervals.

They are roots of Q(x)=c∏i=1n(x−ai)−∑i=1nwi∏j≠i(x−aj).Q(x)=c\prod_{i=1}^n(x-a_i)-\sum_{i=1}^n w_i\prod_{j\ne i}(x-a_j). No pole is a root: Q(ai)=−wi∏j≠i(ai−aj)≠0Q(a_i)=-w_i\prod_{j\ne i}(a_i-a_j)\ne0. The leading coefficient is cc, and the next coefficient is −c∑ai−∑wi-c\sum a_i-\sum w_i. Expanding c∏(x−ri)c\prod(x-r_i), where the rir_i are the nn solutions, therefore gives ∑ri=∑ai+∑wic.\sum r_i=\sum a_i+\frac{\sum w_i}{c}.

Conclusion: One solution in each inner gap and one in the outer interval with the sign of c; sum Σaᵢ+(Σwᵢ)/c.

Question 3

In a nondegenerate triangle ABCABC, choose interior side points D∈BCD\in BC, E∈CAE\in CA, and F∈ABF\in AB. Prove that the perpendiculars to BC,CA,ABBC,CA,AB through D,E,FD,E,F, respectively, are concurrent if and only if BD2+CE2+AF2=DC2+EA2+FB2.BD^2+CE^2+AF^2=DC^2+EA^2+FB^2. Hence determine all t>0t>0 for which concurrence is possible when BD/DC=CE/EA=AF/FB=tBD/DC=CE/EA=AF/FB=t.

Hint 1

For a point T on the perpendicular through D, Pythagoras gives TB2−TC2=BD2−DC2TB^2-TC^2=BD^2-DC^2.

Hint 2

Add three squared-distance differences for necessity. For sufficiency, intersect two perpendiculars and show that the same point lies on the third.

Worked solution 3

Squared-distance bridge. For fixed points U,VU,V and a point WW on their line, the locus of points TT satisfying TU2−TV2=WU2−WV2TU^2-TV^2=WU^2-WV^2 is the perpendicular to UVUV through WW. To see this, use coordinates U=(0,0),V=(L,0),W=(s,0),T=(h,k)U=(0,0),V=(L,0),W=(s,0),T=(h,k). The equality becomes 2Lh−L2=2Ls−L22Lh-L^2=2Ls-L^2, hence h=sh=s, exactly that perpendicular line.

If the three perpendiculars meet at TT, this bridge gives TB2−TC2=BD2−DC2,TC2−TA2=CE2−EA2,TA2−TB2=AF2−FB2.\begin{gathered}TB^2-TC^2=BD^2-DC^2,\\ TC^2-TA^2=CE^2-EA^2,\\ TA^2-TB^2=AF^2-FB^2.\end{gathered} Adding cancels all distances from TT and proves the required condition.

Conversely, let TT be the intersection of the perpendiculars through DD and EE. They are not parallel because BCBC and CACA are not parallel. The first two identities hold. Their sum, together with the assumed condition, implies TA2−TB2=AF2−FB2TA^2-TB^2=AF^2-FB^2. The bridge therefore places TT on the third perpendicular, proving sufficiency.

Finally, if all three ratios equal tt, then BD2−DC2=t−1t+1BC2,BD^2-DC^2=\frac{t-1}{t+1}BC^2, with analogous formulas on the other sides. The condition becomes t−1t+1(BC2+CA2+AB2)=0\frac{t-1}{t+1}(BC^2+CA^2+AB^2)=0. Since the sum of squares is positive and t+1>0t+1>0, it holds exactly when t=1t=1. In that case the perpendiculars are the perpendicular bisectors and do concur.

Three perpendiculars in a concurrent configurationD, E and F are the feet from T to the side lines BC, CA and AB. This is one concurrent example for the criterion proved in the solution.ABCTDEF
One concurrent configuration. The criterion also decides whether other choices of the three side points concur.

Conclusion: Concurrence is equivalent to the squared-length identity; equal cyclic ratios require t=1.

Session 2 · 3 problems · invitation determines timing

Question 4

A rectangular board has cells (i,j)(i,j) with 1≤i≤m1\le i\le m, 1≤j≤n1\le j\le n, where m,n≥2m,n\ge2. Cell (1,1)(1,1) is poisoned. A move chooses a remaining cell (i,j)(i,j) and removes it together with every remaining cell (k,l)(k,l) satisfying k≥ik\ge i and l≥jl\ge j. Two players alternate; whoever removes the poisoned cell loses. Prove that the first player has a winning strategy. You need not give an explicit strategy for every board size.

Hint 1

Consider the first move that removes only (m,n)(m,n). If this already wins, there is nothing left to prove.

Hint 2

If the opponent has a winning reply at (i,j)(i,j), could the first player have played that same cell immediately from the full board?

Worked solution 4

Every move removes at least one cell, so the game is finite and has no draw. Working backwards from positions with only the poisoned cell shows that every position is either winning or losing for the player whose turn it is: a position is winning if there is a safe move to a losing position, and otherwise it is losing.

Chomp example with poison at lower left and the removed far corner inside a reply rectanglepoison(2,3)(m,n)Gold: the reply’s whole removed rectangle
An illustrative 4×5 board. The first move removes only the crossed far corner. A reply at (2,3) removes the remaining gold cells. Together the two moves remove the whole gold rectangle, so playing (2,3) first leaves the same board.

Suppose the first player removes only the far corner (m,n)(m,n). This move is safe. If it leaves the opponent a losing position, it is already a winning first move. Otherwise the opponent has a winning reply, say choosing a remaining safe cell (i,j)(i,j). A winning reply cannot remove the poison, because doing so loses immediately.

Now compare with a different first move from the untouched rectangle: choose that same cell (i,j)(i,j) immediately. Its removed upper-right rectangle already contains (m,n)(m,n), since m≥im\ge i and n≥jn\ge j. Hence the board left after this alternative first move is exactly the board left after the two moves in the previous paragraph.

The assumed winning reply left a losing position for its next player. Our alternative first move leaves precisely that position for the opponent. It is therefore a winning first move. In either case a winning first move exists.

This argument proves existence by analysing an opponent’s possible reply; it does not claim that removing the far corner is always the correct winning move.

Conclusion: The first player always has a winning strategy on every stated rectangle.

Question 5

The labels 1,2,…,n1,2,\ldots,n, where n≥3n\ge3, start in increasing order. A move chooses any three distinct positions and cyclically rotates their labels in either direction. Prove that a prescribed final permutation is reachable if and only if its number of inversions is even. An inversion is a pair of positions i<ji<j whose labels satisfy ai>aja_i>a_j. How many permutations are reachable?

Hint 1

Show that exchanging two positions changes inversion parity, whereas a three-position rotation is a product of two such exchanges.

Hint 2

Any permutation can be made with exchanges. Pair the exchanges in an even-length list; convert each pair into three-position rotations.

Worked solution 5

Parity bridge. Exchanging two labels changes inversion parity. For adjacent positions only their mutual order changes, so the inversion count changes by 1. A swap of positions i<ji<j can be achieved by 2(j−i)−12(j-i)-1 adjacent swaps: move the first label right to position jj, then move the other left to position ii. This is an odd number, proving the claim for every exchange.

A rotation of three positions is two exchanges, so it preserves inversion parity. The initial order has zero inversions; hence every reachable permutation has even inversion count.

Conversely, make the target permutation by a finite sequence of exchanges: place its first required label, then its second, and so on. If the target is even, the number of exchanges in this sequence is even, by the parity claim. Group the exchanges in consecutive pairs.

Two identical exchanges cancel. Two different exchanges sharing one position compose to a three-position rotation. If two exchanges use four distinct positions, write them as swaps (a,b)(a,b) and (c,d)(c,d). Insert the same swap (b,c)(b,c) twice between them, which changes nothing. The four-swap sequence now groups as [(a,b),(b,c)][(a,b),(b,c)] followed by [(b,c),(c,d)][(b,c),(c,d)]; each bracket is a rotation of three positions. Thus every paired exchange can be performed with allowed moves. The target is reachable.

Finally, swapping the first two positions is a bijection between even and odd permutations, because it toggles parity and is its own inverse. Exactly half of the n!n! permutations are even. Hence the number reachable is n!/2n!/2.

Conclusion: Exactly the even permutations are reachable; their number is n!/2.

Question 6

Start a binary tree with 1/11/1 at level 0. A fraction a/ba/b has left child a/(a+b)a/(a+b) and right child (a+b)/b(a+b)/b. Prove that every positive rational number appears exactly once, always in lowest terms. Then find the sum of the fractions at level nn.

Hint 1

For a reduced fraction below 1, its only possible parent is a/(b−a)a/(b-a); above 1, its only possible parent is (a−b)/b(a-b)/b.

Hint 2

Prove that each level is unchanged by replacing every fraction by its reciprocal. Use this symmetry to sum the left children.

Worked solution 6

The root is reduced. If gcd⁡(a,b)=1\gcd(a,b)=1, then gcd⁡(a,a+b)=gcd⁡(a+b,b)=1\gcd(a,a+b)=\gcd(a+b,b)=1, so both children remain reduced. They are positive, with the left child below 1 and the right child above 1.

First three levels of the rational-number tree, starting at 1 over 11/11/22/11/33/22/33/1
Levels 0, 1 and 2. Every left child is below 1 and every right child above 1. Following the unique parent backwards leads to 1/1.

Take any reduced positive fraction a/b≠1a/b\ne1. If a<ba<b, it can only be a left child and its parent must be a/(b−a)a/(b-a). If a>ba>b, it can only be a right child and its parent must be (a−b)/b(a-b)/b. These parents are positive and reduced, and their numerator-plus-denominator is smaller. Repeating must terminate; the only reduced fraction with equal numerator and denominator is 1/11/1. Reversing this unique sequence of parents constructs the fraction in the tree. The uniqueness of each parent and of its left/right type also proves that it cannot occur at two different nodes.

There are 2n2^n nodes at level nn. Each level is unchanged by taking reciprocals: this holds at the root, and the reciprocals of the two children of a/ba/b are the two children of b/ab/a, in opposite order. Therefore, across level nn, ∑aa+b=∑ba+b=2n−1.\sum\frac{a}{a+b}=\sum\frac{b}{a+b}=2^{n-1}. This formula also holds for level 0, where each sum is 1/21/2.

If SnS_n is the sum at level nn, the right children sum to ∑(1+a/b)=2n+Sn\sum(1+a/b)=2^n+S_n, and the left children sum to 2n−12^{n-1}. Hence Sn+1=Sn+3⋅2n−1S_{n+1}=S_n+3\cdot2^{n-1}. Starting from S0=1S_0=1 and summing the increments gives Sn=1+32(2n−1)=3⋅2n−12.\boxed{S_n=1+\frac32(2^n-1)=\frac{3\cdot2^n-1}{2}.}

Conclusion: Every positive rational occurs once; the level-n sum is (3·2ⁿ−1)/2.

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