BWM Runde 1 Mock Paper 3 · IMOolympiad.com · Original practice

4 written-solution problems · Take-home proof practice; no fixed examination timer

This is independent preparation for a take-home competition. For actual entries, follow the organiser’s rules on independent work and permitted collaboration; our hints and solutions are for these original practice tasks only.

Original independent practice in English. Not an official paper or predicted selection test. Keep hints and solutions closed during your attempt.

How to review your proof

Check that you have used every condition, justified the main idea, covered all cases and stated the conclusion. A different complete proof can also be correct. This is a self-review checklist; written proofs are not automatically marked.

Question 1

Let n≥1n\ge1 be an integer. A real polynomial PP of degree at most nn satisfies

P(k)=1k+1(k=0,1,…,n).\begin{gathered}P(k)=\frac1{k+1}\\(k=0,1,\ldots,n).\end{gathered}

Determine P(−1)P(-1) as an explicit sum depending on nn.

Hint 1

The polynomial (x+1)P(x)−1(x+1)P(x)-1 vanishes at 0,1,…,n0,1,\ldots,n.

Hint 2

After factoring that polynomial, put u=x+1u=x+1 and compare coefficients of uu. No differentiation is needed.

Worked solution 1

The given values involve k+1k+1, so multiply by x+1x+1. Put Q(x)=(x+1)P(x)−1Q(x)=(x+1)P(x)-1. It has degree at most n+1n+1, vanishes at all 0,1,…,n0,1,\ldots,n, and is not the zero polynomial because Q(−1)=−1Q(-1)=-1. The factor theorem therefore gives

Q(x)=c∏k=0n(x−k).Q(x)=c\prod_{k=0}^{n}(x-k).

Substituting x=−1x=-1 yields −1=c(−1)n+1(n+1)!-1=c(-1)^{n+1}(n+1)!, hence c=(−1)n/(n+1)!c=(-1)^n/(n+1)!. Now set u=x+1u=x+1. Then

uP(u−1)=1+c∏j=1n+1(u−j).uP(u-1)=1+c\prod_{j=1}^{n+1}(u-j).

The coefficient of uu on the left is P(−1)P(-1), since the constant term of P(u−1)P(u-1) is its value at u=0u=0. To obtain a term containing exactly one uu from the product on the right, select uu from one factor (u−j)(u-j) and select the constants from every other factor. For that choice, the coefficient is (−1)n(n+1)!/j(-1)^n(n+1)!/j. Adding the choices and multiplying by cc gives

P(−1)=∑j=1n+11j.P(-1)=\sum_{j=1}^{n+1}\frac1j.

The conditions are consistent: the numerator 1+c∏k=0n(x−k)1+c\prod_{k=0}^n(x-k) vanishes at −1-1, so dividing it by x+1x+1 produces a polynomial of degree nn with exactly the prescribed values.

Conclusion: P(−1)=1+12+⋯+1n+1P(-1)=1+\frac12+\cdots+\frac1{n+1}.

Question 2

For a positive integer NN, let τ(N)\tau(N) denote its number of positive divisors. Find the least NN satisfying

τ(N)=12,τ(3N)=18,τ(5N)=24.\begin{gathered}\tau(N)=12,\\\tau(3N)=18,\\\tau(5N)=24.\end{gathered}

Hint 1

If the exponent of 3 in NN is aa, then τ(3N)/τ(N)=(a+2)/(a+1)\tau(3N)/\tau(N)=(a+2)/(a+1).

Hint 2

After finding the exponents of 3 and 5, the remaining divisor-count factors have product 6. What exponent patterns give that product?

Worked solution 2

If N=∏piaiN=\prod p_i^{a_i}, a divisor independently selects an exponent from 0 to aia_i for each prime. Thus τ(N)=∏(ai+1)\tau(N)=\prod(a_i+1).

Let aa be the exponent of 3, allowing a=0a=0. Multiplication by 3 changes only that exponent, so

a+2a+1=1812=32,giving a=1.\begin{gathered}\frac{a+2}{a+1}=\frac{18}{12}=\frac32,\\\text{giving }a=1.\end{gathered}

Similarly the exponent bb of 5 satisfies (b+2)/(b+1)=24/12=2(b+2)/(b+1)=24/12=2, giving b=0b=0. Write N=3MN=3M, where MM is coprime to 15 and τ(M)=6\tau(M)=6.

The possible products of factors ai+1≥2a_i+1\ge2 equalling 6 are 6 and 3⋅23\cdot2. Therefore M=p5M=p^5, or M=p2qM=p^2q for distinct primes p,qp,q, neither 3 nor 5.

  • In the first case M≥25=32M\ge2^5=32, hence N≥96N\ge96.
  • In the second case, for two primes p<qp<q, putting the square on the smaller gives the smaller product: p2q<pq2p^2q<pq^2. The two smallest permitted primes are 2 and 7. Hence M≥22⋅7=28M\ge2^2\cdot7=28, giving N≥84N\ge84.

The candidate 84=22⋅3⋅784=2^2\cdot3\cdot7 has divisor count 3⋅2⋅2=123\cdot2\cdot2=12. Multiplying by 3 changes this to 3⋅3⋅2=183\cdot3\cdot2=18; multiplying by 5 changes it to 3⋅2⋅2⋅2=243\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2=24. Thus 84 is attained and is least.

Conclusion: N=84N=84.

Question 3

An L-shaped triomino consists of three cells of a 2×22\times2 square, with the fourth cell omitted. Rotations are allowed. Prove that, for every integer k≥1k\ge1, a 2k×2k2^k\times2^k board with any one cell removed can be tiled completely by L-shaped triominoes, without overlaps.

Hint 1

For k=1k=1, the remaining three cells already form one triomino.

Hint 2

Divide a larger board into four equal square quadrants. Place one triomino at the centre so that each quadrant has exactly one unavailable cell.

Worked solution 3

We use induction because halving the side length produces the same kind of board.

An 8 by 8 board divided into quadrants; one missing cell and a central L-triomino in the other three quadrants×Dark cell: missing; gold cells: central L
The gold L leaves exactly one unavailable cell in each quadrant. The missing cell can lie anywhere in its quadrant.

Base case. For k=1k=1, a 2×22\times2 board with one cell removed is itself an L-shaped triomino.

Induction step. Suppose every 2k×2k2^k\times2^k board with one cell removed can be tiled. Take a 2k+1×2k+12^{k+1}\times2^{k+1} board with one missing cell. Divide it by its horizontal and vertical midlines into four 2k×2k2^k\times2^k quadrants. Exactly one quadrant contains the missing cell.

The four cells meeting at the centre form a 2×22\times2 block. Cover the central cell in each of the other three quadrants with a single L-shaped triomino. Each quadrant now has exactly one unavailable cell: the original missing cell in one quadrant, and a cell occupied by the central triomino in each of the other three.

Apply the induction hypothesis separately to the remaining cells of all four quadrants. These tilings cannot overlap because the quadrants are disjoint, and none uses a cell already covered by the central triomino. Together they cover every required cell. The base case and induction step prove the assertion for all k≥1k\ge1.

Conclusion: Every such deficient square can be tiled; one central triomino reduces the problem to four smaller deficient squares.

Question 4

Let ABCABC be a nondegenerate triangle. Construct equilateral triangles ABXABX and ACYACY externally: XX lies on the opposite side of line ABAB from CC, and YY lies on the opposite side of line ACAC from BB. Prove that CX=BYCX=BY.

Two equilateral triangles built externally on AB and ACABCXYOriginal construction. The proof does not rely on the drawing.

Hint 1

A rotation through 60∘60^\circ about AA takes BB to XX.

Hint 2

Choose the direction of that rotation carefully. The same rotation takes YY to CC.

Worked solution 4

We may view the triangle with A,B,CA,B,C in counterclockwise order; reflecting the entire drawing if necessary changes no lengths or assumptions.

Because ABXABX is equilateral and external to ABCABC, the clockwise rotation through 60∘60^\circ about AA takes BB to XX: it turns the ray ABAB to the external ray AXAX, and AB=AXAB=AX.

For the other equilateral triangle the external ray AYAY is 60∘60^\circ counterclockwise from ACAC, since BB is on the other side of ACAC. Hence that same clockwise rotation takes YY to CC, with AY=ACAY=AC.

A rotation moves every point by the same angle about its centre and preserves distances between points. Thus it takes segment BYBY to segment XCXC, proving BY=XCBY=XC. The choice of opposite external sides is essential to using one rotation for both endpoints.

Conclusion: CX=BYCX=BY.

After this paper

Choose one gap in your proof to repair, study the linked idea, and write a complete solution again before the next mock.

Choose another paper · Check your German selection route

Format reference: official organiser information. Questions and explanations are independent practice material.